If this is true, it's both ludicrous and fascinating. For starters:
- it implies that girls have sufficient ability to 'intend' to commit commercial sex (prostitution) but not to 'consent' to non-commercial sex. What on earth is the difference between intent to consent and why can a girl do one and not the other?
- it presents customers of the girl with twice the problem: presumably they can be charged with both statutory rape and with patronizing a prostitute
- it presents girls with any number of problems, two of which, off the top of my head, are:
- if she should become pregnant, acquire a disease, encounter abuse, or otherwise need help, a prostitute appears to be exposing herself to criminal charges. A 'normal' girl would presumably get any and all help that New York has on offer.
- she is conceivably in a vulnerable position vis a vis a statutory rapist. Assuming that a girl is raped, it seems that the rapist may use the threat of accusing her of engaging in prostitution to discourage her from reporting the incident
Anyway, just a few thoughts. Does anyone know anything about the reality of these scenarios?
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